Question Pool ELEMENT 4 - EXTRA CLASS as released by Question Pool Committee National Conference of Volunteer Examiner Coordinators February 17, 2000 SUBELEMENT E1 -- COMMISSION'S RULES [7 Exam Questions -- 7 Groups] E1A Operating standards: frequency privileges for Extra class amateurs; emission standards; message forwarding; frequency sharing between ITU Regions; FCC modification of station license; 30-meter band sharing; stations aboard ships or aircraft; telemetry; telecommand of an amateur station; authorized telecommand transmissions; definitions of image, pulse and test E1A01 @E1A01 (B) [97.301b] What exclusive frequency privileges in the 80-meter band are authorized to Extra class control operators? A. 3525-3775 kHz B. 3500-3525 kHz C. 3700-3750 kHz D. 3500-3550 kHz E1A02 @E1A02 (C) [97.301b] What exclusive frequency privileges in the 75-meter band are authorized to Extra class control operators? A. 3775-3800 kHz B. 3800-3850 kHz C. 3750-3775 kHz D. 3800-3825 kHz E1A03 @E1A03 (A) [97.301b] What exclusive frequency privileges in the 40-meter band are authorized to Extra class control operators? A. 7000-7025 kHz B. 7000-7050 kHz C. 7025-7050 kHz D. 7100-7150 kHz E1A04 @E1A04 (D) [97.301b] What exclusive frequency privileges in the 20-meter band are authorized to Extra class control operators? A. 14.100-14.175 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz B. 14.000-14.125 MHz and 14.250-14.300 MHz C. 14.025-14.050 MHz and 14.100-14.150 MHz D. 14.000-14.025 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz E1A05 @E1A05 (C) [97.301b] What exclusive frequency privileges in the 15-meter band are authorized to Extra class control operators? A. 21.000-21.200 MHz and 21.250-21.270 MHz B. 21.050-21.100 MHz and 21.150-21.175 MHz C. 21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.200-21.225 MHz D. 21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.250-21.275 MHz E1A06 @E1A08 (D) [97.307c] What must an amateur licensee do if a spurious emission from his or her station causes harmful interference to the reception of another radio station? A. Pay a fine each time it happens B. Submit a written explanation to the FCC C. Forfeit the station license if it happens more than once D. Eliminate or reduce the interference E1A07 @A1A08 (A) [97.307d] What is the maximum mean power permitted for any spurious emission from a transmitter or external RF power amplifier transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHz? A. 50 mW B. 100 mW C. 10 mW D. 10 W E1A08 @A1A09 (B) [97.307d] How much below the mean power of the fundamental emission must any spurious emissions from a station transmitter or external RF power amplifier transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHz be attenuated? A. At least 10 dB B. At least 40 dB C. At least 50 dB D. At least 100 dB E1A09 @A1A10 (C) [97.307e] How much below the mean power of the fundamental emission must any spurious emissions from a transmitter or external RF power amplifier transmitting on a frequency between 30 and 225 MHz be attenuated? A. At least 10 dB B. At least 40 dB C. At least 60 dB D. At least 100 dB E1A10 @A1A11 (D) [97.307e] What is the maximum mean power permitted for any spurious emission from a transmitter having a mean power of 25 W or less on frequencies between 30 and 225 MHz? A. 5 microwatts B. 10 microwatts C. 20 microwatts D. 25 microwatts E1A11 @E1A06 (B) [97.219b&d] If a packet bulletin board station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is accountable for the rules violation? A. The control operator of the packet bulletin board station B. The control operator of the originating station and conditionally the first forwarding station C. The control operators of all the stations in the system D. The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications E1A12 @E1A07 (A) [97.219c] If your packet bulletin board station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules, what is the first action you should take? A. Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it B. Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules C. Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office D. Discontinue forwarding all messages E1A13 @E1A11 (D) [97.27] Why might the FCC modify an amateur station license? A. To relieve crowding in certain bands B. To better prepare for a time of national emergency C. To enforce a radio quiet zone within one mile of an airport D. To promote the public interest, convenience and necessity E1A14 @E1A12 (A) [97.11a] If an amateur station is installed on board a ship or aircraft and is separate from the main radio installation, what condition must be met before the station is operated? A. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft B. Its antenna must be separate from the main ship or aircraft antennas, transmitting only when the main radios are not in use C. It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply D. Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license E1A15 @E1A13 (B) [97.11] What type of FCC-issued license or permit is required to transmit amateur communications from a vessel registered in the US while in international waters? A. Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement B. Any amateur license or reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee C. Any General class or higher license D. An Extra class license E1A16 @E1A14 (D) [97.211b] When may a station use special codes intended to obscure the meaning of messages? A. Never under any circumstances B. Only when a Special Temporary Authority has been obtained from the FCC C. Only when an Extra class operator is controlling the station D. When sending telecommand messages to a station in space operation E1B Station restrictions: restrictions on station locations; restricted operation; teacher as control operator; station antenna structures; definition and operation of remote control and automatic control; control link E1B01 @E1B01 (A) [97.13a] Which of the following factors might restrict the physical location of an amateur operator's station equipment or antenna structure? A. The land may have environmental importance; or it is significant in American history, architecture or culture B. The location's political or societal importance C. The location's geographical or horticultural importance D. The location's international importance, requiring consultation with one or more foreign governments before installation E1B02 @E1B02 (A) [97.13b] Outside of what distance from an FCC monitoring facility may an amateur station be located without concern for protecting the facility from harmful interference? A. 1 mile B. 3 miles C. 10 miles D. 30 miles E1B03 @E1B03 (C) [97.13a] What must be done before an amateur station is placed within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places? A. A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service B. A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society C. An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC D. A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior E1B04 @E1B04 (A) [97.121a] If an amateur station interferes with the reception of broadcast stations on a well-engineered receiver, during what hours shall the amateur station NOT be operated on the interfering frequencies? A. Daily from 8 PM to 10:30 PM local time and additionally from 10:30 AM to 1 PM on Sunday B. Daily from 6 PM to 12 AM local time and additionally from 8 AM to 5 PM on Sunday C. Daily for any continuous span of at least 2.5 hours and for at least 5 continuous hours on Sunday D. Daily for any continuous span of at least 6 hours and for at least 9 continuous hours on Sunday E1B05 @E1B05 (D) [97.121a] If an amateur station causes interference to the reception of a domestic broadcast station with a receiver of good engineering design, on what frequencies may the operation of the amateur station be restricted? A. On the frequency used by the domestic broadcast station B. On all frequencies below 30 MHz C. On all frequencies above 30 MHz D. On the interfering amateur frequency or frequencies E1B06 @E1B06 (C) [97.113c] When may a paid professional teacher be the control operator of an amateur station used in the teacher's classroom? A. Only when the teacher is not paid during periods of time when an amateur station is used B. Only when the classroom is in a correctional institution C. Only when the station is used by that teacher as a part of classroom instruction at an educational institution D. Only when the station is restricted to making contacts with similar stations at other educational institutions E1B07 @E1B07 (B) [97.113c] Who may accept compensation when acting as a control operator in a classroom? A. Any licensed amateur B. Only teachers at educational institutions C. Only teachers at correctional institutions D. Only students at educational or correctional institutions E1B08 @E1B08 (D) [97.15b] *Modified Rules citation for Rules changes What limits must state and local authorities observe when legislating height and dimension restrictions for amateur antenna structures? A. FAA regulations specify a minimum height for amateur antenna structures located near airports B. FCC regulations specify a 200 foot minimum height for amateur antenna structures C. State and local restrictions of amateur antenna structures are not allowed D. PRB-1 specifies that authorities must reasonably accommodate the installation of amateur antenna structures E1B09 @E1B09 (B) [97.15] If an amateur antenna structure is located in a valley or canyon, what height restrictions apply? A. The structure must not extend more that 200 feet above average height of the terrain B. The structure must be no higher than 200 feet above ground level at its site C. There are no height restrictions since the structure would not be a hazard to aircraft in a valley or canyon D. The structure must not extend more that 200 feet above the top of the valley or canyon E1B10 @E1B11 (D) [97.15] *Modified Rules citation for Rules changes. What kind of approval is required before erecting an amateur antenna located near an airport as defined in the FCC rules? A. The FAA and FCC both must approve any type of antenna structure located near an airport B. Approval must be obtained from the airport manager C. Approval must be obtained from the local zoning authorities D. The FCC must approve an antenna structure that is higher than 20 feet above any natural or existing man made structure E1B11 @E1B12 (C) [97.15] What special restrictions does the FCC impose on amateur antennas mounted on motor vehicles? A. Such antennas may not extend more than 15 feet above the roof of the vehicle B. Complex antennas, such as a Yagi or quad beam, may not be installed on motor vehicles C. None D. Such antennas must comply with the recommendations of the vehicle manufacturer E1B12 @A1E10 (C) [97.15a] What must an amateur obtain before installing an antenna structure more than 200 feet high? A. An environmental assessment B. A Special Temporary Authorization C. Prior FCC approval D. An effective radiated power statement E1B13 @A1B01 (D) [97.3a38] *Modified Rules citation for Rules changes What is meant by a remotely controlled station? A. A station operated away from its regular home location B. Control of a station from a point located other than at the station transmitter C. A station operating under automatic control D. A station controlled indirectly through a control link E1B14 @A1B03 (A) [97.201d,97.203d,97.205d] Which kind of station operation may not be automatically controlled? A. Control of a model craft B. Beacon operation C. Auxiliary operation D. Repeater operation E1B15 @A1B05 (A) [97.3a6] What is meant by automatic control of a station? A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that a control operator does not have to be present at a control point B. A station operating with its output power controlled automatically C. Remotely controlling a station such that a control operator does not have to be present at the control point at all times D. The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station E1B16 @A1B06 (B) [97.3a6] How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control? A. Under local control there is no control operator B. Under automatic control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point C. Under automatic control there is no control operator D. Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point E1B17 @A1B14 (C) [97.3a38] *Modified Rules citation for Rules changes What is a control link? A. A device that automatically controls an unattended station B. An automatically operated link between two stations C. The means of control between a control point and a remotely controlled station D. A device that limits the time of a station's transmission E1B18 @A1B15 (D) [97.3a38] *Modified Rules citation for Rules changes What is the term for apparatus to effect remote control between a control point and a remotely controlled station? A. A tone link B. A wire control C. A remote control D. A control link E1C Reciprocal operating: definition of reciprocal operating permit; purpose of reciprocal agreement rules; alien control operator privileges; identification; application for reciprocal permit; reciprocal permit license term (Note: This includes CEPT and IARP.) E1C01 @E1C01 (A) [97.5c, d, e, 97.107] *Modified Rules citation, Q for Rules changes. What is an FCC authorization for alien reciprocal operation? A. An FCC authorization to a holder of an amateur license issued by certain foreign governments to operate an amateur station in the US B. An FCC permit to allow a US licensed amateur to operate in a foreign nation, except Canada C. An FCC permit allowing a foreign licensed amateur to handle third-party traffic between the US and the amateur's own nation D. An FCC agreement with another country allowing the passing of third-party traffic between amateurs of the two nations E1C02 @E1C02 (B) [97.107] *Modified Rule Citation and Q, B, C for new rules. Who is eligible for an FCC authorization for alien reciprocal operation? A. Anyone holding a valid amateur license issued by a foreign government B. Any non-US citizen holding an amateur license issued by a foreign government with which the US has a reciprocal operating arrangement C. Anyone holding a valid amateur license issued by a foreign government with which the US has a reciprocal operating arrangement D. Any non-US citizen holding a valid amateur or shortwave listener's license issued by a foreign government E1C03 @E1C03 (C) [97.107] *Modified Rule Citation and Q, A for new rules. What operator frequency privileges are authorized by an FCC authorization for alien reciprocal operation? A. Those authorized to a holder of the equivalent US amateur license, unless the FCC specifies otherwise by endorsement on the authorization B. Those that the holder of the permit would have in their own country C. Those authorized to US amateurs that the holder of the permit would have in their own country, unless the FCC specifies otherwise D. Only those frequencies approved by the International Amateur Radio Union, unless the FCC specifies otherwise E1C04 @E1C04 (D) [97.119g] *Modified Rule Citation and Q for new rules. What additional station identification, in addition to his or her own call sign, does an alien operator supply when operating in the US under an FCC authorization for alien reciprocal operation? A. No additional identification is required B. The grid-square locator closest to his or her present location is included before the call C. The serial number of the permit and the call-letter district number of the station location is included before the call D. The letter-numeral indicating the station location in the US is included before their own call and closest city and state E1C05 @E1C05 (A) [97.107] *Modified Rule Citation and Q for new rules. When may a US citizen holding a foreign amateur license obtain an FCC authorization for alien reciprocal operation? A. Never; US citizens are not eligible B. When the citizen has imported his or her equipment from the foreign country C. When the citizen has never held a US amateur license D. When the citizen has no current US amateur license E1C06 @E1C07 (A) [97.107] *Modified Rule Citation and Q for new rules. Which of the following would disqualify a foreign amateur from being eligible for a US authorization for alien reciprocal operation? A. Holding only an amateur license issued by a country but not being a citizen of that country B. Citizenship in their own country but not US citizenship C. Holding only an amateur license issued by their own country but holding no US amateur license D. Holding an amateur license issued by their own country granting them frequency privileges beyond US Extra class privileges E1C07 @E1C08 (B) [97.107a] *Modified Rule Citation and Q, A for new rules. What special document is required before a Canadian citizen holding a Canadian amateur license may operate in the US? A. All aliens, including Canadians, must obtain an FCC authorization for alien reciprocal operation B. No special document is required C. The citizen must have an FCC-issued validation of their Canadian license D. The citizen must have an FCC-issued Certificate of US License Grant without Examination to operate for a period longer than 10 days E1C08 @New (C) [97.107b] What operating privileges does a properly licensed alien amateur have in the US, if the US and the alien amateur's home country have a multilateral or bilateral reciprocal operating agreement? A. All privileges of their home license B. All privileges of a US Amateur Extra license C. Those granted by their home license that match US privileges, not to exceed the operating privileges of an Amateur Extra license D. Those granted by their home license that match US privileges authorized to amateurs operating in ITU Region 1 E1C09 @New (D) [97.5c] From which locations may a licensed alien amateur be a control operator? A. Only locations within the boundaries of the 50 United States B. Only locations listed as the primary station location on a US amateur license C. Only locations on ground within the US and its territories; no shipboard or aeronautical mobile operation is permitted D. Any location where the amateur service is regulated by the FCC E1C10 @New (A) [97.5d] Which of the following multilateral or bilateral operating arrangements allow US amateurs to operate in many European countries and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US? A. CEPT agreement B. IARP agreement C. ITU agreement D. All these choices are correct E1C11 @New (B) [97.5e] Which of the following multilateral or bilateral operating arrangements allow US amateurs and many Central and South American amateurs to operate in each others' countries? A. CEPT agreement B. IARP agreement C. ITU agreement D. All of these choices are correct E1D Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES): definition; purpose; station registration; station license required; control operator requirements; control operator privileges; frequencies available; limitations on use of RACES frequencies; points of communication for RACES operation; permissible communications E1D01 @E1D01 (B) [97.3a37] *Modified Rules citation for Rules changes. What is RACES? A. An amateur network for providing emergency communications during athletic races B. The Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service C. The Radio Amateur Corps for Engineering Services D. An amateur network for providing emergency communications during boat or aircraft races E1D02 @E1D02 (A) [97.3a37] *Modified Rules citation for Rules changes. What is the purpose of RACES? A. To provide civil-defense communications during emergencies B. To provide emergency communications for boat or aircraft races C. To provide routine and emergency communications for athletic races D. To provide routine and emergency military communications E1D03 @E1D03 (C) [97.407a] *Modified Q for apparent typo. RACES registration changed to RACES operation With what other organization must an amateur station be registered before RACES operation is permitted? A. The Amateur Radio Emergency Service B. The US Department of Defense C. A civil defense organization D. The FCC Field Operations Bureau E1D04 @E1D04 (C) [97.407a] *Modified B, D to change Novice to Technician. Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES? A. Only Extra class amateur stations B. Any licensed amateur station (except a station licensed to a Technician) C. Any licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization D. Any licensed amateur station (except a station licensed to a Technician) certified by the responsible civil defense organization E1D05 @E1D05 (D) [97.21a1] *Modified A, B, C, D for Rules changes. Application for modification of a RACES license must be made on what FCC form, and sent to what FCC office? A. Form 605, sent to Washington, DC B. Form 605, sent to Gettysburg, PA C. Form 610-A, sent to Washington, DC D. A Club Call Sign Administrator must submit the information to the FCC in an electronic batch file E1D06 @E1D06 (D) [97.407a] Who may be the control operator of a RACES station? A. Anyone who holds an FCC-issued amateur license other than Novice B. Only an Extra class licensee C. Anyone who holds an FCC-issued amateur license other than Novice and is certified by a civil defense organization D. Anyone who holds an FCC-issued amateur license and is certified by a civil defense organization E1D07 @E1D07 (A) [97.407b] What additional operator privileges are granted to an Extra class operator registered with RACES? A. None B. CW operations on 5167.5 kHz C. Unattended HF packet-radio station operations D. 237-MHz civil defense band operations E1D08 @E1D08 (D) [97.407b] What frequencies are normally available for RACES operation? A. Only those frequencies authorized to civil defense organizations B. Only those frequencies authorized to emergency military communications C. Only the top 25 kHz of each amateur frequency band D. All frequencies available to the amateur service E1D09 @E1D09 (A) [97.407b] What type of emergency can cause limits to be placed on the frequencies available for RACES operation? A. An emergency in which the President invokes the War Emergency Powers under the provisions of the Communications Act of 1934 B. An emergency in only one state in the US would limit RACES operations to a single HF frequency band C. An emergency confined to a 25-mile area would limit RACES operations to a single VHF band D. An emergency involving no immediate danger of loss of life E1D10 @E1D10 (B) [97.407c,d] *Modified A to change "Novices" to "Technician class operators." With what stations may amateur RACES stations communicate? A. Any RACES stations and any amateur stations except stations licensed to Technician class operators B. Any RACES stations and certain other stations authorized by the responsible civil defense official C. Any amateur station or a station in the Disaster Communications Service D. Any amateur station and any military emergency station E1D11 @E1D11 (C) [97.407e] What are permissible communications in RACES? A. Any type of communications when there is no emergency B. Any Amateur Radio Emergency Service communications C. National defense or immediate safety of people and property and communications authorized by the area civil defense organization D. National defense and security or immediate safety of people and property communications authorized by the President E1E Amateur Satellite Service: definition; purpose; station license required for space station; frequencies available; telecommand operation: definition; eligibility; telecommand station (definition); space telecommand station; special provisions; telemetry: definition; special provisions; space station: definition; eligibility; special provisions; authorized frequencies (space station); notification requirements; earth operation: definition; eligibility {97.209(a)}; authorized frequencies (Earth station) E1E01 @E1E01 (C) [97.3a3] What is the Amateur Satellite Service? A. A radio navigation service using stations on earth satellites for the same purposes as those of the amateur service B. A radio communication service using stations on earth satellites for weather information gathering C. A radio communication service using stations on earth satellites for the same purpose as those of the amateur service D. A radio location service using stations on earth satellites for amateur radar experimentation E1E02 @E1E02 (A) [97.207] Which HF amateur bands have frequencies available for space operation? A. Only 40 m, 20 m, 17 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m B. Only 40 m, 30 m, 20 m, 15 m and 10 m C. Only 40 m, 30 m, 20 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m D. All HF bands, but only in the Extra class segments E1E03 @New (D) [97.207] *New question to replace previous possibly defective question. Which of the following types of communications may space stations transmit? A. Automatic retransmission of signals from Earth stations and other space stations B. One way communications C. Telemetry consisting of specially coded messages D. All of these choices are correct E1E04 @E1E04 (B) [97.3a44] *Modified Rules citation for Rules changes. What type of amateur station operation transmits communications used to initiate, modify or terminate the functions of a space station? A. Space operation B. Telecommand operation C. Earth operation D. Control operation E1E05 @E1E05 (D) [97.211a] *Modified A to replace Novice with Technician. Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations? A. Any except those of Technician licensees B. Only those of Extra class licensees C. Only a station operated by the space station licensee D. Any station designated by the space station licensee E1E06 @E1E06 (C) [97.207f] What term does the FCC use for space-to-earth transmissions used to communicate the results of measurements made by a space station? A. Data transmission B. Frame check sequence C. Telemetry D. Telecommand E1E07 @E1E07 (B) [97.3a40] *Modified Rules citation for Rules changes. What is the term used to describe the operation of an amateur station that is more than 50 km above the earth's surface? A. EME station operation B. Space station operation C. Downlink station operation D. Ionospheric station operation E1E08 @E1E08 (D) [97.207a] *Modified A to change Novice to Technician. Which amateur stations are eligible for space operation? A. Any except those of Technician licensees B. Only those of General, Advanced or Extra class licensees C. Only those of Extra class licensees D. Any amateur station E1E09 @E1E09 (D) [97.207g] Before initiating space station transmissions, by when must the licensee of the station give the FCC prior written pre-space notification? A. Before 3 months and before 72 hours B. Before 6 months and before 3 months C. Before 12 months and before 3 months D. Before 27 months and before 5 months E1E10 @E1E10 (C) [97.207h] After space station transmissions are initiated, by when must the licensee of the station give the FCC written in-space notification? A. Within 24 hours B. Within 72 hours C. Within 7 days D. Within 30 days E1E11 @E1E11 (D) [97.207i] After space station transmissions are terminated, by when must the licensee of the station normally give the FCC written post-space notification? A. No later than 48 hours B. No later than 72 hours C. No later than 7 days D. No later than 3 months E1E12 @E1E12 (B) [97.3a16] *Modified Rules citation for Rules changes. What term describes an amateur station located on or within 50 km of earth's surface intended for communications with space stations? A. Telecommand station B. Earth station C. Telemetry station D. Auxiliary station E1F Volunteer Examiner Coordinators (VECs): definition; VEC qualifications; VEC agreement; scheduling examinations; coordinating VEs; reimbursement for expenses {97.527}; accrediting VEs; question pools; Volunteer Examiners (VEs): definition; requirements; accreditation; reimbursement for expenses; VE conduct; preparing an examination; examination elements; definition of code and written elements; preparation responsibility; examination requirements; examination credit; examination procedure; examination administration; temporary operating authority E1F01 @E1F01 (C) [97.521] What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator? A. A person who has volunteered to administer amateur license examinations B. A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur license examinations C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur license examinations given by Volunteer Examiners D. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate the preparation of amateur license examinations E1F02 @E1F02 (A) [97.519, 97.521, 97.523] *Modified B for Rules changes Which of the following is NOT among the functions of a VEC? A. Prepare and administer amateur operator license examinations, grade examinee's answers and inform examinees of their pass/fail results B. Collect FCC Forms 605 documents and test results from the administering VEs C. Assure that all desiring an amateur operator license examination are registered without regard to race, sex, religion or national origin D. Cooperate in maintaining a pool of questions for each written amateur examination element E1F03 @E1F03 (B) [97.521] Which of the following is NOT among the qualifying requirements to be a VEC? A. Be an organization that exists for the purpose of furthering the amateur service B. Be engaged in the manufacture and/or sale of amateur station equipment or amateur license preparation materials C. Agree to coordinate examinations for all classes of amateur operator licenses D. Agree to administer amateur operator license examinations in accordance with FCC Rules throughout at least one call-letter district E1F04 @E1F06 (B) [97.519a] *Modified Q for awkward sentence (preparing to preparation) What organization coordinates the preparation and administration of amateur license examinations? A. The FCC B. A VEC C. A group of three or more volunteers D. A local radio club E1F05 @E1F09 (A) [97.525a4] Under what circumstances may a VEC refuse to accredit a person as a Volunteer Examiner? A. If the VEC determines that questions of the person's integrity or honesty could compromise amateur license examinations B. If the VEC determines that the person is a Volunteer Examiner for another VEC C. If the prospective VE is not a member of a club actively engaged in the preparation and administration of amateur license examinations D. If the prospective VE is a citizen of a foreign country E1F06 @E1F11 (C) [97.523] Where are the questions listed that must be used in all written US amateur license examinations? A. In the instructions each VEC gives to their VEs B. In an FCC-maintained question pool C. In the VEC-maintained question pool D. In the appropriate FCC Report and Order E1F07 @E1G01 (B) [97.525] What is an accredited VE? A. An amateur operator who is approved by three or more fellow VEs to administer amateur license examinations B. An amateur operator who is approved by a VEC to administer amateur operator license examinations C. An amateur operator who administers amateur license examinations for a fee D. An amateur operator who is approved by an FCC staff member to administer amateur license examinations E1F08 @E1G02 (D) [97.509b1, 97.525] What is the VE accreditation process? A. General and higher class licensees are automatically allowed to conduct amateur license examinations once their license is granted B. The FCC tests volunteers who wish to conduct amateur license examinations C. A prospective VE requests permission from three or more already accredited VEs to administer amateur license examinations D. Each VEC ensures its Volunteer Examiner applicants meet FCC requirements to serve as VEs E1F09 @E1G04 (C) [97.509b4] Which persons seeking to be VEs cannot be accredited? A. Persons holding less than an Advanced class license B. Persons less than 21 years of age C. Persons who have ever had their amateur licenses suspended or revoked D. Persons who are employees of the federal government E1F10 @E1G08 (A) [97.527a] For what type of services may a VE be reimbursed for out-of-pocket expenses? A. Preparing, processing or administering amateur license examinations B. Teaching and administering amateur license study courses C. None; a VE cannot be reimbursed for out-of-pocket expenses D. Purchasing and distributing amateur license preparation materials E1F11 @E1G09 (A) [97.509e, 97.527b] How much money beyond reimbursement for out-of-pocket expenses may a person accept for serving as a VE? A. None B. Up to the national minimum hourly wage times the number of hours spent serving as a VE C. Up to the maximum fee per applicant set by the FCC each year D. As much as applicants are willing to donate E1F12 @E1G10 (B) [97.507a, b, c] *Modified Q, B for Rules changes Who may prepare an Element 2 amateur operator license examination? A. A VEC that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin B. A Technician, General, Advanced, or Extra class VE or a qualified supplier that selects questions from the appropriate VEC question pool C. An Extra class VE who selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin D. The FCC, which selects questions from the appropriate VEC question pool E1F13 @E1G11 (C) [97.507a, b, c] *Modified Q, A for Rules changes Who may prepare an Element 3 amateur operator license examination? A. Only an Extra class VE who selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin B. A VEC that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin C. An Advanced or Extra class VE or a qualified supplier that selects questions from the appropriate VEC question pool D. The, FCC which selects questions from the appropriate VEC question pool E1F14 @E1G12 (D) [97.507a, b, c] *Modified Q for Rules changes Who may prepare an Element 4 amateur operator license examination? A. The FCC, which selects questions from the appropriate VEC question pool B. A VEC that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin C. An Extra class VE that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin D. An Extra class VE or a qualified supplier who selects questions from the appropriate VEC question pool E1F15 @E1H01 (C) [97.505a6] What amateur operator license examination credit must be given for a valid Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE)? A. Only the written elements the CSCE indicates the examinee passed B. Only the telegraphy elements the CSCE indicates the examinee passed C. Each element the CSCE indicates the examinee passed D. No credit E1F16 @E1H02 (A) [97.509c] Where must Volunteer Examiners be while they are conducting an amateur license examination? A. They must all be present and observing the candidate(s) throughout the entire examination B. They must all leave the room after handing out the exams to allow the candidate(s) to concentrate on the exam material C. They may be anywhere as long as at least one VE is present and is observing the candidate(s) throughout the entire examination D. They may be anywhere as long as they are listed as having participated in the examination E1F17 @E1H03 (C) [97.509c] Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session? A. The VEC coordinating the session B. The FCC C. The administering Volunteer Examiners D. The Volunteer Examiner in charge of the session E1F18 @E1H04 (B) [97.509c] What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination? A. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination B. Immediately terminate the candidate's examination C. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results D. Immediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session E1F19 @E1H05 (C) [97.509h] What must be done with the test papers of each element completed by the candidates(s) at an amateur operator license examination? A. They must be collected and graded by the administering VEs within 10 days of the examination B. They must be collected and sent to the coordinating VEC for grading within 10 days of the examination C. They must be collected and graded immediately by the administering VEs D. They must be collected and sent to the FCC for grading within 10 days of the examination E1F20 @E1H06 (A) [97.509j] What must the VEs do if an examinee for an amateur operator license does not score a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade? A. Return the application document to the examinee and inform the examinee of the grade(s) B. Return the application document to the examinee and inform the examinee which questions were incorrectly answered C. Simply inform the examinee of the failure(s) D. Inform the examinee which questions were incorrectly answered and show how the questions should have been answered E1G Type acceptance of external RF power amplifiers and external RF power amplifier kits; Line A; National Radio Quiet Zone; business communications; definition and operation of spread spectrum; auxiliary station operation E1G01 @A1C01 (D) [97.315a] How many external RF amplifiers of a particular design capable of operation below 144 MHz may an unlicensed, non-amateur build or modify in one calendar year without obtaining a grant of Certification? A. 1 B. 5 C. 10 D. None E1G02 @A1C02 (B) [97.315c] If an RF amplifier manufacturer was granted Certification for one of its amplifier models for amateur use, what would this allow the manufacturer to market? A. All current models of their equipment B. Only that particular amplifier model C. Any future amplifier models D. Both the current and any future amplifier models E1G03 @A1C03 (A) [97.315b5] Under what condition may an equipment dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification? A. If it was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station B. If it was assembled from a kit by the equipment dealer C. If it was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require type acceptance of RF power amplifiers D. If it was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was type accepted by that country's government E1G04 @A1C04 (D) [97.317a1] Which of the following is one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC Certification? A. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power B. It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks C. It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range D. It must satisfy the spurious emission standards when operated at its full output power E1G05 @A1C05 (D) [97.317a2] Which of the following is one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of Certification? A. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power B. It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks C. It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range D. It must satisfy the spurious emission standards when placed in the "standby" or "off" position, but is still connected to the transmitter E1G06 @A1C06 (C) [97.317b] Which of the following is one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of Certification? A. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power B. It must exhibit a gain of at least 20 dB for any input signal C. It must not be capable of operation on any frequency between 24 MHz and 35 MHz D. Any spurious emissions from the amplifier must be no more than 40 dB stronger than the desired output signal E1G07 @A1C07 (B) [97.317a3] Which of the following is one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of Certification? A. It must have a time-delay circuit to prevent it from operating continuously for more than ten minutes B. It must satisfy the spurious emission standards when driven with at least 50 W mean RF power (unless a higher drive level is specified) C. It must not be capable of modification by an amateur operator without voiding the warranty D. It must exhibit no more than 6 dB of gain over its entire operating range E1G08 @A1C08 (A) [97.317c1] Which of the following would disqualify an external RF power amplifier from being granted Certification? A. Any accessible wiring which, when altered, would permit operation of the amplifier in a manner contrary to FCC Rules B. Failure to include a schematic diagram and theory of operation manual that would permit an amateur to modify the amplifier C. The capability of being switched by the operator to any amateur frequency below 24 MHz D. Failure to produce 1500 watts of output power when driven by at least 50 watts of mean input power E1G09 @A1C09 (C) [97.317c8] Which of the following would disqualify an external RF power amplifier from being granted Certification? A. Failure to include controls or adjustments that would permit the amplifier to operate on any frequency below 24 MHz B. Failure to produce 1500 watts of output power when driven by at least 50 watts of mean input power C. Any features designed to facilitate operation in a telecommunication service other than the Amateur Service D. The omission of a schematic diagram and theory of operation manual that would permit an amateur to modify the amplifier E1G10 @A1C10 (D) [97.317c3] Which of the following would disqualify an external RF power amplifier from being granted Certification? A. The omission of a safety switch in the high-voltage power supply to turn off the power if the cabinet is opened B. Failure of the amplifier to exhibit more than 15 dB of gain over its entire operating range C. The omission of a time-delay circuit to prevent the amplifier from operating continuously for more than ten minutes D. The inclusion of instructions for operation or modification of the amplifier in a manner contrary to the FCC Rules E1G11 @A1C11 (B) [97.317b2] Which of the following would disqualify an external RF power amplifier from being granted Certification? A. Failure to include a safety switch in the high-voltage power supply to turn off the power if the cabinet is opened B. The amplifier produces 3 dB of gain for input signals between 26 MHz and 28 MHz C. The inclusion of a schematic diagram and theory of operation manual that would permit an amateur to modify the amplifier D. The amplifier produces 1500 watts of output power when driven by at least 50 watts of mean input power SUBELEMENT E2 -- OPERATING PROCEDURES [4 Exam Questions -- 4 Groups] E2A Amateur Satellites: Orbital mechanics; Frequencies available for satellite operation; Satellite hardware; Operating through amateur satellites E2A01 @E2A01 (C) What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite? A. From west to east B. From east to west C. From south to north D. From north to south E2A02 @E2A02 (A) What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite? A. From north to south B. From west to east C. From east to west D. From south to north E2A03 @E2A03 (C) What is the period of an amateur satellite? A. The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit B. The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit C. The amount of time it takes for a satellite to complete one orbit D. The time it takes a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee E2A04 @E2A04 (D) What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode A in amateur satellite operations? A. Satellite receiving on 10 meters and retransmitting on 2 meters B. Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 2 meters C. Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 10 meters D. Satellite receiving on 2 meters and retransmitting on 10 meters E2A05 @E2A05 (B) What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode B in amateur satellite operations? A. Satellite receiving on 10 meters and retransmitting on 2 meters B. Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 2 meters C. Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 10 meters D. Satellite receiving on 2 meters and retransmitting on 10 meters E2A06 @E2A06 (C) What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode J in amateur satellite operations? A. Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 2 meters B. Satellite receiving on 2 meters and retransmitting on 10 meters C. Satellite receiving on 2 meters and retransmitting on 70 centimeters D. Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and transmitting on 10 meters E2A07 @E2A07 (D) What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode L in amateur satellite operations? A. Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 10 meters B. Satellite receiving on 10 meters and retransmitting on 70 centimeters C. Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 23 centimeters D. Satellite receiving on 23 centimeters and retransmitting on 70 centimeters E2A08 @E2A08 (B) What is a linear transponder? A. A repeater that passes only linear or CW signals B. A device that receives and retransmits signals of any mode in a certain passband C. An amplifier that varies its output linearly in response to input signals D. A device which responds to satellite telecommands and is used to activate a linear sequence of events E2A09 @E2A09 (D) What is the name of the effect which causes the downlink frequency of a satellite to vary by several kHz during a low-earth orbit because the distance between the satellite and ground station is changing? A. The Kepler effect B. The Bernoulli effect C. The Einstein effect D. The Doppler effect E2A10 @E2A10 (A) Why does the received signal from a Phase 3 amateur satellite exhibit a fairly rapid pulsed fading effect? A. Because the satellite is rotating B. Because of ionospheric absorption C. Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude D. Because of the Doppler effect E2A11 @E2A11 (B) What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation? A. A nonpolarized antenna B. A circularly polarized antenna C. An isotropic antenna D. A log-periodic dipole array E2B Television: fast scan television (FSTV) standards; slow scan television (SSTV) standards; facsimile (fax) communications E2B01 @E2B01 (A) How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan television system? A. 30 B. 60 C. 90 D. 120 E2B02 @E2B02 (C) How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan television frame? A. 30 B. 60 C. 525 D. 1050 E2B03 @E2B03 (D) How is the interlace scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan television system? A. By scanning the field from top to bottom B. By scanning the field from bottom to top C. By scanning from left to right in one field and right to left in the next D. By scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered ones in the next E2B04 @E2B04 (B) What is blanking in a video signal? A. Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses B. Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left and from bottom to top C. Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission D. Transmitting a black and white test pattern E2B05 @E2B06 (D) What is the bandwidth of a vestigial sideband AM fast-scan television transmission? A. 3 kHz B. 10 kHz C. 25 kHz D. 6 MHz E2B06 @E2B07 (C) What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for black? A. 0% B. 12.5% C. 70% D. 100% E2B07 @E2B09 (C) What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for blanking? A. 0% B. 12.5% C. 75% D. 100% E2B08 @E2B11 (A) Which of the following is NOT a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television? A. Amplitude modulation of the video carrier B. Frequency-modulated sub-carrier C. A separate VHF or UHF audio link D. Frequency modulation of the video carrier E2B09 @A2A01 (D) What is facsimile? A. The transmission of characters by radioteletype that form a picture when printed B. The transmission of still pictures by slow-scan television C. The transmission of video by amateur television D. The transmission of printed pictures for permanent display on paper E2B10 @A2A02 (A) What is the modern standard scan rate for a facsimile picture transmitted by an amateur station? A. 240 lines per minute B. 50 lines per minute C. 150 lines per second D. 60 lines per second E2B11 @A2A03 (B) What is the approximate transmission time per frame for a facsimile picture transmitted by an amateur station at 240 lpm? A. 6 minutes B. 3.3 minutes C. 6 seconds D. 1/60 second E2B12 @A2A05 (C) In facsimile, what device converts variations in picture brightness and darkness into voltage variations? A. An LED B. A Hall-effect transistor C. A photodetector D. An optoisolator E2C Contest and DX operating; spread-spectrum transmissions; automatic HF forwarding. E2C01 @E2C01 (A) What would be the ideal operating strategy for a worldwide DX contest during a solar minimum instead of a solar maximum? A. 160-40 meters would be emphasized during the evening; 20 meters during daylight hours B. There would be little to no strategic difference C. 80 meters would support worldwide communication during mid-day hours D. 10 and 15 meters should be tried one hour before sunset E2C02 @E2C02 (A) When operating during a contest, which of these standards should you generally follow? A. Always listen before transmitting, be courteous and do not cause harmful interference to other communications B. Always reply to other stations calling CQ at least as many times as you call CQ C. When initiating a contact, always reply with the call sign of the station you are calling followed by your own call sign D. Always include your signal report, name and transmitter power output in any exchange with another station E2C03 @E2C03 (B) What is one of the main purposes for holding on-the-air operating contests? A. To test the dollar-to-feature value of station equipment during difficult operating circumstances B. To enhance the communicating and operating skills of amateurs in readiness for an emergency C. To measure the ionospheric capacity for refracting RF signals under varying conditions D. To demonstrate to the FCC that amateur station operation is possible during difficult operating circumstances E2C04 @E2C04 (C) Which of the following is typical of operations during an international amateur DX contest? A. Calling CQ is always done on an odd minute and listening is always done on an even minute B. Contacting a DX station is best accomplished when the WWV K index is above a reading of 8 C. Some DX operators use split frequency operations (transmitting on a frequency different from the receiving frequency) D. DX contacts during the day are never possible because of known band attenuation from the sun E2C05 @E2C05 (D) If a DX station asks for your grid square locator, what should be your reply? A. The square of the power fed to the grid of your final amplifier and your current city, state and country B. The DX station's call sign followed by your call sign and your RST signal report C. The subsection of the IARU region in which you are located based upon dividing the entire region into a grid of squares 10 km wide D. Your geographic "Maidenhead" grid location (e.g., FN31AA) based on your current latitude and longitude E2C06 @E2C06 (A) What does a "Maidenhead" grid square refer to? A. A two-degree longitude by one degree latitude square, as part of a world wide numbering system B. A one-degree longitude by one degree latitude square, beginning at the South Pole C. An antenna made of wire grid used to amplify low-angle incoming signals while reducing high-angle incoming signals D. An antenna consisting of a screen or grid positioned directly beneath the radiating element E2C07 @E2C08 (C) During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band section would you expect to find the highest level of contest activity? A. At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests B. In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency C. At the bottom of each band, usually in the weak signal segment D. In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency E2C08 @E2C09 (D) Which of the following frequency ranges is reserved by "gentlemen's agreement" for DX contacts during international 6-meter contests? A. 50.000 to 50.025 MHz B. 50.050 to 50.075 MHz C. 50.075 to 50.100 MHz D. 50.100 to 50.125 MHz E2C09 @E2C10 (C) If you are in the US calling a station in Texas on a frequency of 1832 kHz and a station replies that you are "in the window," what does this mean? A. You are operating out of the band privileges of your license B. You are calling at the wrong time of day to be within the window of frequencies that can be received in Texas at that time C. You are transmitting in a frequency segment that is reserved for international DX contacts by "gentlemen's agreement" D. Your modulation has reached an undesirable level and you are interfering with another contact E2C10 @A2A10 (A) Why are received spread-spectrum signals so resistant to interference? A. Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressed in the receiver B. The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered C. The receiver is always equipped with a special digital signal processor (DSP) interference filter D. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies E2C11 @A2A11 (D) How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping (FH) work? A. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies B. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear C. A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence D. The frequency of an RF carrier is changed very rapidly according to a particular pseudo-random sequence E2C12 @A2A12 (C) What is the most common data rate used for HF packet communications? A. 48 bauds B. 110 bauds C. 300 bauds D. 1200 bauds E2D Digital Operating: HF digital communications (ie, PacTOR, CLOVER, AMTOR, PSK31, HF packet); packet clusters; HF digital bulletin boards E2D01 @E2D01 (B) What is the most common method of transmitting data emissions below 30 MHz? A. DTMF tones modulating an FM signal B. FSK (frequency-shift keying) of an RF carrier C. AFSK (audio frequency-shift keying) of an FM signal D. Key-operated on/off switching of an RF carrier E2D02 @E2D02 (A) What do the letters "FEC" mean as they relate to AMTOR operation? A. Forward Error Correction B. First Error Correction C. Fatal Error Correction D. Final Error Correction E2D03 @E2D03 (C) How is Forward Error Correction implemented? A. By transmitting blocks of 3 data characters from the sending station to the receiving station which the receiving station acknowledges B. By transmitting a special FEC algorithm which the receiving station uses for data validation C. By transmitting each data character twice, since there is no specific acknowledgment of reception D. By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm E2D04 @E2D04 (B) What does "CMD:" mean when it is displayed on the video monitor of a packet station? A. The TNC is ready to exit the packet terminal program B. The TNC is in command mode, ready to receive instructions from the keyboard C. The TNC will exit to the command mode on the next keystroke D. The TNC is in KISS mode running TCP/IP, ready for the next command E2D05 @E2D05 (D) What is the Baudot code? A. A code used to transmit data only in modern computer-based data systems using seven data bits B. A binary code consisting of eight data bits C. An alternate name for Morse code D. The "International Telegraph Alphabet Number 2" (ITA2) which uses five data bits E2D06 @E2D06 (A) If an oscilloscope is connected to a TNC or terminal unit and is displaying two crossed ellipses, one of which suddenly disappears, what would this indicate about the observed signal? A. The phenomenon known as "selective fading" has occurred B. One of the signal filters has saturated C. The receiver should be retuned, as it has probably moved at least 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency D. The mark and space signal have been inverted and the receiving equipment has not yet responded to the change E2D07 @E2D07 (D) Which of the following systems is used to transmit high-quality still images by radio? A. AMTOR B. Baudot RTTY C. AMTEX D. Facsimile E2D08 @E2D08 (C) What special restrictions are imposed on facsimile (fax) transmissions? A. None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies B. They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 28.945 MHz C. They are allowed in phone band segments if their bandwidth is no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type D. They are not permitted above 54 MHz E2D09 @E2D09 (D) What is the name for a bulletin transmission system that includes a special header to allow receiving stations to determine if the bulletin has been previously received? A. ARQ mode A B. FEC mode B C. AMTOR D. AMTEX E2D10 @E2D10 (A) What is a Packet Cluster Bulletin Board? A. A packet bulletin board devoted primarily to serving a special interest group B. A group of general-purpose packet bulletin boards linked together in a "cluster" C. A special interest cluster of packet bulletin boards devoted entirely to packet radio computer communications D. A special interest telephone/modem bulletin board devoted to amateur DX operations E2D11 @E2D11 (C) Which of the following statements comparing HF and 2-meter packet operations is NOT true? A. HF packet typically uses an FSK signal with a data rate of 300 bauds; 2- meter packet uses an AFSK signal with a data rate of 1200 bauds B. HF packet and 2-meter packet operations use the same code for information exchange C. HF packet is limited to Extra class amateur licensees; 2 meter packet is open to all but Novice class amateur licensees D. HF packet operations are limited to "CW/Data"-only band segments; 2-meter packet is allowed wherever FM operations are allowed SUBELEMENT E3 -- RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [3 Exam Questions -- 3 Groups] E3A Earth-Moon-Earth (EME or moonbounce) communications; meteor scatter E3A01 @E3A01 (D) What is the maximum separation between two stations communicating by moonbounce? A. 500 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee B. 2000 miles maximum, if the moon is at apogee C. 5000 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee D. Any distance as long as the stations have a mutual lunar window E3A02 @E3A02 (B) What characterizes libration fading of an earth-moon-earth signal? A. A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal B. A fluttery, rapid irregular fading C. A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises D. The returning echo is several hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal E3A03 @E3A03 (A) What are the best days to schedule EME contacts? A. When the moon is at perigee B. When the moon is full C. When the moon is at apogee D. When the weather at both stations is clear E3A04 @E3A04 (D) What type of receiving system is required for EME communications? A. Equipment with very low power output B. Equipment with very low dynamic range C. Equipment with very low gain D. Equipment with very low noise figures E3A05 @E3A05 (A) What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz when attempting an earth-moon-earth contact? A. Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and then receives for the following two minutes B. One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute and then receives for the following one minute C. Two-and-one-half minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full 2.5 minutes and then receives for the following 2.5 minutes D. Five-minute sequences, where one station transmits for five minutes and then receives for the following five minutes E3A06 @E3A06 (C) What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 432 MHz when attempting an EME contact? A. Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and then receives for the following two minutes B. One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute and then receives for the following one minute C. Two and one half minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full 2.5 minutes and then receives for the following 2.5 minutes D. Five minute sequences, where one station transmits for five minutes and then receives for the following five minutes E3A07 @E3A07 (B) What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME stations in the 2- meter band? A. 144.000 - 144.001 MHz B. 144.000 - 144.100 MHz C. 144.100 - 144.300 MHz D. 145.000 - 145.100 MHz E3A08 @E3A08 (D) What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME stations in the 70-cm band? A. 430.000 - 430.150 MHz B. 430.100 - 431.100 MHz C. 431.100 - 431.200 MHz D. 432.000 - 432.100 MHz E3A09 @E3A09 (A) When the earth's atmosphere is struck by a meteor, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere? A. The E layer B. The F1 layer C. The F2 layer D. The D layer E3A10 @E3A10 (C) Which range of frequencies is well suited for meteor-scatter communications? A. 1.8 - 1.9 MHz B. 10 - 14 MHz C. 28 - 148 MHz D. 220 - 450 MHz E3A11 @E3A11 (C) What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz when attempting a meteor-scatter contact? A. Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and then receives for the following two minutes B. One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute and then receives for the following one minute C. 15-second sequences, where one station transmits for 15 seconds and then receives for the following 15 seconds D. 30-second sequences, where one station transmits for 30 seconds and then receives for the following 30 seconds E3B Transequatorial; long path; gray line E3B01 @E3B01 (A) What is transequatorial propagation? A. Propagation between two points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator B. Propagation between two points at approximately the same latitude on the magnetic equator C. Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator D. Propagation between two stations at the same latitude E3B02 @E3B02 (C) What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation? A. 1000 miles B. 2500 miles C. 5000 miles D. 7500 miles E3B03 @E3B03 (C) What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation? A. Morning B. Noon C. Afternoon or early evening D. Late at night E3B04 @E3B04 (A) What type of propagation is probably occurring if a beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals? A. Long-path B. Sporadic-E C. Transequatorial D. Auroral E3B05 @E3B05 (D) On what amateur bands can long-path propagation provide signal enhancement? A. 160 to 40 meters B. 30 to 10 meters C. 160 to 10 meters D. 160 to 6 meters E3B06 @E3B06 (B) What amateur band consistently yields long-path enhancement using a modest antenna of relatively high gain? A. 80 meters B. 20 meters C. 10 meters D. 6 meters E3B07 @E3B07 (D) What is the typical reason for hearing an echo on the received signal of a station in Europe while directing your HF antenna toward the station? A. The station's transmitter has poor frequency stability B. The station's transmitter is producing spurious emissions C. Auroral conditions are causing a direct and a long-path reflected signal to be received D. There are two signals being received, one from the most direct path and one from long-path propagation E3B08 @E3B08 (D) What type of propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the earth's terminator? A. Transequatorial B. Sporadic-E C. Long-path D. Gray-line E3B09 @E3B09 (A) At what time of day is gray-line propagation most prevalent? A. Twilight, at sunrise and sunset B. When the sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station C. When the sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations D. When the sun is directly above the location of the receiving station E3B10 @E3B10 (B) What is the cause of gray-line propagation? A. At midday the sun, being directly overhead, superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves B. At twilight solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization is not weakened enough to reduce the MUF C. At darkness solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady D. At midafternoon the sun heats the ionosphere, increasing radio wave refraction and the MUF E3B11 @E3B11 (C) What communications are possible during gray-line propagation? A. Contacts up to 2,000 miles only on the 10-meter band B. Contacts up to 750 miles on the 6- and 2-meter bands C. Contacts up to 8,000 to 10,000 miles on three or four HF bands D. Contacts up to 12,000 to 15,000 miles on the 10- and 15-meter bands E3C Auroral propagation; selective fading; radio-path horizon; take-off angle over flat or sloping terrain; earth effects on propagation E3C01 @A3A05 (D) What effect does auroral activity have upon radio communications? A. The readability of SSB signals increases B. FM communications are clearer C. CW signals have a clearer tone D. CW signals have a fluttery tone E3C02 @A3A06 (C) What is the cause of auroral activity? A. A high sunspot level B. A low sunspot level C. The emission of charged particles from the sun D. Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes E3C03 @A3A08 (D) Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur? A. At F-region height B. In the equatorial band C. At D-region height D. At E-region height E3C04 @A3A09 (A) Which emission modes are best for auroral propagation? A. CW and SSB B. SSB and FM C. FM and CW D. RTTY and AM E3C05 @A3B01 (B) What causes selective fading? A. Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station B. Phase differences between radio-wave components of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station C. Large changes in the height of the ionosphere at the receiving station ordinarily occurring shortly after either sunrise or sunset D. Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations E3C06 @A3B03 (B) Which emission modes suffer the most from selective fading? A. CW and SSB B. FM and double sideband AM C. SSB and AMTOR D. SSTV and CW E3C07 @A3B04 (A) How does the bandwidth of a transmitted signal affect selective fading? A. It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths B. It is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths C. It is the same for both narrow and wide bandwidths D. The receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading effect E3C08 @A3B06 (A) How much farther does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon? A. By approximately 15% of the distance B. By approximately twice the distance C. By approximately one-half the distance D. By approximately four times the distance E3C09 @A3B07 (B) For a 3-element Yagi antenna with horizontally mounted elements, how does the main lobe takeoff angle vary with height above flat ground? A. It increases with increasing height B. It decreases with increasing height C. It does not vary with height D. It depends on E-region height, not antenna height E3C10 @A3B09 (B) What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF propagation that travels for some distance within the F2 region? A. Oblique-angle ray B. Pedersen ray C. Ordinary ray D. Heaviside ray E3C11 @A3B11 (C) What effect is usually responsible for propagating a VHF signal over 500 miles? A. D-region absorption B. Faraday rotation C. Tropospheric ducting D. Moonbounce E3C12 @A3B12 (A) What happens to an electromagnetic wave as it encounters air molecules and other particles? A. The wave loses kinetic energy B. The wave gains kinetic energy C. An aurora is created D. Nothing happens because the waves have no physical substance SUBELEMENT E4 -- AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES [5 Exam Questions -- 5 Groups] E4A Test equipment: spectrum analyzers (interpreting spectrum analyzer displays; transmitter output spectrum); logic probes (indications of high and low states in digital circuits; indications of pulse conditions in digital circuits) E4A01 @E4A01 (C) How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional time-domain oscilloscope? A. A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals B. A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the time domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the frequency domain C. A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain D. A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies E4A02 @E4A02 (D) What does the horizontal axis of a spectrum analyzer display? A. Amplitude B. Voltage C. Resonance D. Frequency E4A03 @E4A03 (A) What does the vertical axis of a spectrum analyzer display? A. Amplitude B. Duration C. Frequency D. Time E4A04 @E4A04 (A) Which test instrument is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter? A. A spectrum analyzer B. A wattmeter C. A logic analyzer D. A time-domain reflectometer E4A05 @E4A05 (B) Which test instrument is used to display intermodulation distortion products from an SSB transmitter? A. A wattmeter B. A spectrum analyzer C. A logic analyzer D. A time-domain reflectometer E4A06 @E4A06 (C) Which of the following is NOT something you would determine with a spectrum analyzer? A. The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2-meter duplexer B. Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency C. The speed at which a transceiver switches from transmit to receive when being used for packet radio D. The spectral output of a transmitter E4A07 @E4A07 (B) What is an advantage of using a spectrum analyzer to observe the output from a VHF transmitter? A. There are no advantages; an inexpensive oscilloscope can display the same information B. It displays all frequency components of the transmitted signal C. It displays a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope D. It costs much less than any other instrumentation useful for such measurements E4A08 @E4A08 (D) What advantage does a logic probe have over a voltmeter for monitoring the status of a logic circuit? A. It has many more leads to connect to the circuit than a voltmeter B. It can be used to test analog and digital circuits C. It can read logic circuit voltage more accurately than a voltmeter D. It is smaller and shows a simplified readout E4A09 @E4A09 (C) Which test instrument is used to directly indicate high and low digital states? A. An ohmmeter B. An electroscope C. A logic probe D. A Wheatstone bridge E4A10 @E4A10 (D) What can a logic probe indicate about a digital logic circuit? A. A short-circuit fault B. An open-circuit fault C. The resistance between logic modules D. The high and low logic states E4A11 @E4A11 (A) Which test instrument besides an oscilloscope is used to indicate pulse conditions in a digital logic circuit? A. A logic probe B. An ohmmeter C. An electroscope D. A Wheatstone bridge E4B Frequency measurement devices (i.e., frequency counter, oscilloscope Lissajous figures, dip meter); meter performance limitations; oscilloscope performance limitations; frequency counter performance limitations E4B01 @A4A01 (B) What is a frequency standard? A. A frequency chosen by a net control operator for net operations B. A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency C. A device for accurately measuring frequency to within 1 Hz D. A device used to generate wide-band random frequencies E4B02 @A4A02 (A) What does a frequency counter do? A. It makes frequency measurements B. It produces a reference frequency C. It measures FM transmitter deviation D. It generates broad-band white noise E4B03 @A4B04 (B) What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of a frequency counter? A. Number of digits in the readout, speed of the logic and time base stability B. Time base accuracy, speed of the logic and time base stability C. Time base accuracy, temperature coefficient of the logic and time base stability D. Number of digits in the readout, external frequency reference and temperature coefficient of the logic E4B04 @A4B05 (C) How can the accuracy of a frequency counter be improved? A. By using slower digital logic B. By improving the accuracy of the frequency response C. By increasing the accuracy of the time base D. By using faster digital logic E4B05 @A4B06 (C) If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? A. 165.2 Hz B. 14.652 kHz C. 146.52 Hz D. 1.4652 MHz E4B06 @A4B07 (A) If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? A. 14.652 Hz B. 0.1 MHz C. 1.4652 Hz D. 1.4652 kHz E4B07 @A4B08 (D) If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? A. 146.52 Hz B. 10 Hz C. 146.52 kHz D. 1465.20 Hz E4B08 @A4B09 (D) If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? A. 43.21 MHz B. 10 Hz C. 1.0 MHz D. 432.1 Hz E4B09 @A4B10 (A) If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? A. 43.21 Hz B. 0.1 MHz C. 432.1 Hz D. 0.2 MHz E4B10 @A4B11 (C) If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? A. 10 MHz B. 10 Hz C. 4321 Hz D. 432.1 Hz E4B11 @A4A03 (C) If a 100 Hz signal is fed to the horizontal input of an oscilloscope and a 150 Hz signal is fed to the vertical input, what type of Lissajous figure should be displayed on the screen? A. A looping pattern with 100 loops horizontally and 150 loops vertically B. A rectangular pattern 100 mm wide and 150 mm high C. A looping pattern with 3 loops horizontally and 2 loops vertically D. An oval pattern 100 mm wide and 150 mm high E4B12 @A4A04 (C) What is a dip-meter? A. A field-strength meter B. An SWR meter C. A variable LC oscillator with metered feedback current D. A marker generator E4B13 @A4A05 (D) What does a dip-meter do? A. It accurately indicates signal strength B. It measures frequency accurately C. It measures transmitter output power accurately D. It gives an indication of the resonant frequency of a circuit E4B14 @A4A06 (B) How does a dip-meter function? A. Reflected waves at a specific frequency desensitize a detector coil B. Power coupled from an oscillator causes a decrease in metered current C. Power from a transmitter cancels feedback current D. Harmonics from an oscillator cause an increase in resonant circuit Q E4B15 @A4A07 (D) What two ways could a dip-meter be used in an amateur station? A. To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure percentage of modulation B. To measure antenna resonance and to measure percentage of modulation C. To measure antenna resonance and to measure antenna impedance D. To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure a tuned circuit resonant frequency E4B16 @A4A08 (B) What types of coupling occur between a dip-meter and a tuned circuit being checked? A. Resistive and inductive B. Inductive and capacitive C. Resistive and capacitive D. Strong field E4B17 @A4A09 (A) For best accuracy, how tightly should a dip-meter be coupled with a tuned circuit being checked? A. As loosely as possible B. As tightly as possible C. First loosely, then tightly D. With a jumper wire between the meter and the circuit to be checked E4B18 @A4B02 (A) What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of an oscilloscope? A. Accuracy and linearity of the time base and the linearity and bandwidth of the deflection amplifiers B. Tube face voltage increments and deflection amplifier voltage C. Accuracy and linearity of the time base and tube face voltage increments D. Deflection amplifier output impedance and tube face frequency increments E4C Receiver performance characteristics (i.e., phase noise, desensitization, capture effect, intercept point, noise floor, dynamic range {blocking and IMD}, image rejection, MDS, signal-to-noise-ratio); intermodulation and cross- modulation interference E4C01 @A4C01 (D) What is the effect of excessive phase noise in a receiver local oscillator? A. It limits the receiver ability to receive strong signals B. It reduces the receiver sensitivity C. It decreases the receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range D. It allows strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals E4C02 @A4C02 (A) What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency? A. Desensitization B. Quieting C. Cross-modulation interference D. Squelch gain rollback E4C03 @A4C03 (B) What causes receiver desensitization? A. Audio gain adjusted too low B. Strong adjacent-channel signals C. Squelch gain adjusted too high D. Squelch gain adjusted too low E4C04 @A4C04 (A) What is one way receiver desensitization can be reduced? A. Shield the receiver from the transmitter causing the problem B. Increase the transmitter audio gain C. Decrease the receiver squelch gain D. Increase the receiver bandwidth E4C05 @A4C05 (C) What is the capture effect? A. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM receiver B. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM receiver C. The strongest signal received is the only demodulated signal D. The weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal E4C06 @A4C06 (C) What is the term for the blocking of one FM-phone signal by another stronger FM-phone signal? A. Desensitization B. Cross-modulation interference C. Capture effect D. Frequency discrimination E4C07 @A4C07 (A) With which emission type is capture effect most pronounced? A. FM B. SSB C. AM D. CW E4C08 @A4C08 (D) What is meant by the noise floor of a receiver? A. The weakest signal that can be detected under noisy atmospheric conditions B. The amount of phase noise generated by the receiver local oscillator C. The minimum level of noise that will overload the receiver RF amplifier stage D. The weakest signal that can be detected above the receiver internal noise E4C09 @A4C09 (B) What is the blocking dynamic range of a receiver that has an 8-dB noise figure and an IF bandwidth of 500 Hz if the blocking level (1-dB compression point) is -20 dBm? A. -119 dBm B. 119 dB C. 146 dB D. -146 dBm E4C10 @E4B11 (C) What is meant by the dynamic range of a communications receiver? A. The number of kHz between the lowest and the highest frequency to which the receiver can be tuned B. The maximum possible undistorted audio output of the receiver, referenced to one milliwatt C. The ratio between the minimum discernible signal and the largest tolerable signal without causing audible distortion products D. The difference between the lowest-frequency signal and the highest- frequency signal detectable without moving the tuning knob E4C11 @E4B12 (A) What type of problems are caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver? A. Cross modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong adjacent signals B. Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning, and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband, should it be transmitted C. Cross modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker D. Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals E4C12 @A4C10 (B) What part of a superheterodyne receiver determines the image rejection ratio of the receiver? A. Product detector B. RF amplifier C. AGC loop D. IF filter E4C13 @A4C11 (B) If you measured the MDS of a receiver, what would you be measuring? A. The meter display sensitivity (MDS), or the responsiveness of the receiver S-meter to all signals B. The minimum discernible signal (MDS), or the weakest signal that the receiver can detect C. The minimum distorting signal (MDS), or the strongest signal the receiver can detect without overloading D. The maximum detectable spectrum (MDS), or the lowest to highest frequency range of the receiver E4C14 @A4D02 (B) How does intermodulation interference between two repeater transmitters usually occur? A. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead B. When they are in close proximity and the signals mix in one or both of their final amplifiers C. When they are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in one or both of their final amplifiers D. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead E4C15 @A4D03 (B) How can intermodulation interference between two repeater transmitters in close proximity often be reduced or eliminated? A. By using a Class C final amplifier with high driving power B. By installing a terminated circulator or ferrite isolator in the feed line to the transmitter and duplexer C. By installing a band-pass filter in the antenna feed line D. By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna feed line E4C16 @A4D09 (A) If a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz receives an intermodulation-product signal whenever a nearby transmitter transmits on 146.52 MHz, what are the two most likely frequencies for the other interfering signal? A. 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz B. 146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz C. 146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz D. 73.35 MHz and 239.40 MHz E4D Noise suppression: ignition noise; alternator noise (whine); electronic motor noise; static; line noise E4D01 @E4C01 (A) What is one of the most significant problems associated with mobile transceivers? A. Ignition noise B. Doppler shift C. Radar interference D. Mechanical vibrations E4D02 @E4C02 (A) What is the proper procedure for suppressing electrical noise in a mobile transceiver? A. Apply shielding and filtering where necessary B. Insulate all plane sheet metal surfaces from each other C. Apply antistatic spray liberally to all non-metallic surfaces D. Install filter capacitors in series with all DC wiring E4D03 @E4C03 (C) Where can ferrite beads be installed to suppress ignition noise in a mobile transceiver? A. In the resistive high-voltage cable B. Between the starter solenoid and the starter motor C. In the primary and secondary ignition leads D. In the antenna lead to the transceiver E4D04 @E4C04 (C) How can ensuring good electrical contact between connecting metal surfaces in a vehicle reduce ignition noise? A. It reduces the frequency of the ignition spark B. It helps radiate the ignition noise away from the vehicle C. It encourages lower frequency electrical resonances in the vehicle D. It reduces static buildup on the vehicle body E4D05 @E4C05 (B) How can alternator whine be minimized? A. By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the longest possible path B. By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the shortest possible path C. By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's DC power lead to the vehicle's electrical system D. By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead E4D06 @E4C06 (D) How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed? A. By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and by installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead B. By connecting the radio to the battery by the longest possible path and installing a blocking capacitor in both leads C. By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead D. By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by installing coaxial capacitors in the alternator leads E4D07 @E4C09 (B) How can you reduce noise from an electric motor? A. Install a ferrite bead on the AC line used to power the motor B. Install a brute-force, AC-line filter in series with the motor leads C. Install a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads D. Use a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor E4D08 @E4C07 (B) What is a major cause of atmospheric static? A. Sunspots B. Thunderstorms C. Airplanes D. Meteor showers E4D09 @E4C08 (C) How can you determine if a line-noise interference problem is being generated within your home? A. Check the power-line voltage with a time-domain reflectometer B. Observe the AC waveform on an oscilloscope C. Turn off the main circuit breaker and listen on a battery-operated radio D. Observe the power-line voltage on a spectrum analyzer E4D10 @E4C10 (A) What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio transmitter? A. A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter B. An electrical-sparking signal C. A differential-mode signal at the AC-line frequency D. Harmonics of the AC-line frequency E4D11 @E4C11 (B) What type of equipment cannot be used to locate power line noise? A. An AM receiver with a directional antenna B. An FM receiver with a directional antenna C. A hand-held RF sniffer D. An ultrasonic transducer, amplifier and parabolic reflector E4E Component mounting techniques (i.e., surface, dead bug {raised}, circuit board); direction finding: techniques and equipment; fox hunting E4E01 @A4A11 (D) What circuit construction technique uses leadless components mounted between circuit board pads? A. Raised mounting B. Integrated circuit mounting C. Hybrid device mounting D. Surface mounting E4E02 @E4D01 (A) What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding? A. It has a bidirectional pattern broadside to the loop B. It is non-rotatable C. It receives equally well in all directions D. It is practical for use only on VHF bands E4E03 @E4D02 (B) What pattern is desirable for a direction-finding antenna? A. One which is non-cardioid B. One with good front-to-back and front-to-side ratios C. One with good top-to-bottom and side-to-side ratios D. One with shallow nulls E4E04 @E4D03 (C) What is the triangulation method of direction finding? A. The geometric angle of ground waves and sky waves from the signal source are used to locate the source B. A fixed receiving station plots three beam headings from the signal source on a map C. Beam headings from several receiving stations are used to plot the signal source on a map D. A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source E4E05 @E4D04 (D) Why is an RF attenuator desirable in a receiver used for direction finding? A. It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal B. It eliminates the effects of isotropic radiation C. It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls D. It prevents receiver overload from extremely strong signals E4E06 @E4D05 (A) What is a sense antenna? A. A vertical antenna added to a loop antenna to produce a cardioid reception pattern B. A horizontal antenna added to a loop antenna to produce a cardioid reception pattern C. A vertical antenna added to an Adcock antenna to produce a omnidirectional reception pattern D. A horizontal antenna added to an Adcock antenna to produce a omnidirectional reception pattern E4E07 @E4D06 (D) What type of antenna is most useful for sky-wave reception in radio direction finding? A. A log-periodic dipole array B. An isotropic antenna C. A circularly-polarized antenna D. An Adcock antenna E4E08 @E4D07 (C) What is a loop antenna? A. A large circularly-polarized antenna B. A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core C. Several turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil D. Any antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire E4E09 @E4D08 (D) How can the output voltage of a loop antenna be increased? A. By reducing the permeability of the loop shield B. By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure C. By reducing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure D. By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure E4E10 EE4D09 (B) Why is an antenna system with a cardioid pattern desirable for a direction- finding system? A. The broad-side responses of the cardioid pattern can be aimed at the desired station B. The deep null of the cardioid pattern can pinpoint the direction of the desired station C. The sharp peak response of the cardioid pattern can pinpoint the direction of the desired station D. The high-radiation angle of the cardioid pattern is useful for short- distance direction finding E4E11 @E4D10 (C) What type of terrain can cause errors in direction finding? A. Homogeneous terrain B. Smooth grassy terrain C. Varied terrain D. Terrain with no buildings or mountains E4E12 E4D11 (A) What is the activity known as fox hunting? A. Amateurs using receivers and direction-finding techniques attempt to locate a hidden transmitter B. Amateurs using transmitting equipment and direction-finding techniques attempt to locate a hidden receiver C. Amateurs helping the government track radio-transmitter collars attached to animals D. Amateurs assemble stations using generators and portable antennas to test their emergency communications skills SUBELEMENT E5 -- ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [9 Exam Questions -- 9 Groups] E5A Characteristics of resonant circuits: Series resonance (capacitor and inductor to resonate at a specific frequency); Parallel resonance (capacitor and inductor to resonate at a specific frequency); half-power bandwidth E5A01 @A5A01 (A) What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them? A. Resonance B. Capacitance C. Conductance D. Resistance E5A02 @A5A02 (C) What is resonance in an electrical circuit? A. The highest frequency that will pass current B. The lowest frequency that will pass current C. The frequency at which capacitive reactance equals inductive reactance D. The frequency at which power factor is at a minimum E5A03 @A5A03 (B) What are the conditions for resonance to occur in an electrical circuit? A. The power factor is at a minimum B. Inductive and capacitive reactances are equal C. The square root of the sum of the capacitive and inductive reactance is equal to the resonant frequency D. The square root of the product of the capacitive and inductive reactance is equal to the resonant frequency E5A04 @A5A04 (D) When the inductive reactance of an electrical circuit equals its capacitive reactance, what is this condition called? A. Reactive quiescence B. High Q C. Reactive equilibrium D. Resonance E5A05 @A5A05 (D) What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. High, as compared to the circuit resistance B. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance C. Approximately equal to inductive reactance D. Approximately equal to circuit resistance E5A06 @A5A06 (A) What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance? A. Approximately equal to circuit resistance B. Approximately equal to inductive reactance C. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance D. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance E5A07 @A5A07 (B) What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. It is at a minimum B. It is at a maximum C. It is DC D. It is zero E5A08 #A5A08 (B) What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel L-C circuit at resonance? A. It is at a minimum B. It is at a maximum C. It is DC D. It is zero E5A09 @A5A09 (A) What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. It is at a minimum B. It is at a maximum C. It is DC D. It is zero E5A10 @A5A10 (C) What is the relationship between the current through a resonant circuit and the voltage across the circuit? A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees C. The voltage and current are in phase D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase E5A11 @A5A11 (C) What is the relationship between the current into (or out of) a parallel resonant circuit and the voltage across the circuit? A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees C. The voltage and current are in phase D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase E5A12 @A5E01 (A) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95? A. 18.9 kHz B. 1.89 kHz C. 189 Hz D. 58.7 kHz E5A13 @A5E03 (C) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150? A. 211 kHz B. 16.5 kHz C. 47.3 kHz D. 21.1 kHz E5A14 @A5E05 (A) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 150? A. 95 kHz B. 10.5 kHz C. 10.5 MHz D. 17 kHz E5A15 @A5E06 (D) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 21.15 MHz and a Q of 95? A. 4.49 kHz B. 44.9 kHz C. 22.3 kHz D. 222.6 kHz E5A16 @A5E09 (C) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118? A. 22.3 kHz B. 76.2 kHz C. 31.4 kHz D. 10.8 kHz E5A17 @A5E10 (C) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187? A. 22.3 kHz B. 10.8 kHz C. 76.2 kHz D. 13.1 kHz E5B Exponential charge/discharge curves (time constants): definition; time constants in RL and RC circuits; E5B01 @E5B01 (B) What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the supply voltage? A. An exponential rate of one B. One time constant C. One exponential period D. A time factor of one E5B02 @E5B02 (A) What is the term for the time required for the current in an RL circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value? A. One time constant B. An exponential period of one C. A time factor of one D. One exponential rate E5B03 @E5B03 (D) What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial value of stored charge? A. One discharge period B. An exponential discharge rate of one C. A discharge factor of one D. One time constant E5B04 @E5B04 (C) The capacitor in an RC circuit is charged to what percentage of the supply voltage after two time constants? A. 36.8% B. 63.2% C. 86.5% D. 95% E5B05 @E5B05 (D) The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage after two time constants? A. 86.5% B. 63.2% C. 36.8% D. 13.5% E5B06 @E5B06 (A) What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in series? A. 47 seconds B. 101.1 seconds C. 103 seconds D. 220 seconds E5B07 @E5B07 (D) What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in parallel? A. 47 seconds B. 101.1 seconds C. 103 seconds D. 220 seconds E5B08 @E5B08 (C) What is the time constant of a circuit having a 220-microfarad capacitor in series with a 470-kilohm resistor? A. 47 seconds B. 80 seconds C. 103 seconds D. 220 seconds E5B09 @E5B09 (A) How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it? A. 0.02 seconds B. 0.08 seconds C. 450 seconds D. 1350 seconds E5B10 @E5B10 (B) How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 0.37 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it? A. 0.02 seconds B. 0.08 seconds C. 450 seconds D. 1350 seconds E5B11 @E5B11 (C) How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it? A. 0.02 seconds B. 0.08 seconds C. 450 seconds D. 1350 seconds E5C Impedance diagrams: Basic principles of Smith charts; impedance of RLC networks at specified frequencies E5C01 @E5C01 (A) What type of graph can be used to calculate impedance along transmission lines? A. A Smith chart B. A logarithmic chart C. A Jones chart D. A radiation pattern chart E5C02 @E5C02 (B) What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart? A. Voltage and current circles B. Resistance and reactance circles C. Voltage and current lines D. Resistance and reactance lines E5C03 @E5C03 (C) What type of calculations can be performed using a Smith chart? A. Beam headings and radiation patterns B. Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings C. Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines D. Circuit gain calculations E5C04 @E5C04 (C) What are the two families of circles that make up a Smith chart? A. Resistance and voltage B. Reactance and voltage C. Resistance and reactance D. Voltage and impedance E5C05 @E5C05 (A) What type of chart is shown in Figure E5-1? A. Smith chart B. Free-space radiation directivity chart C. Vertical-space radiation pattern chart D. Horizontal-space radiation pattern chart E5C06 @E5C06 (B) On the Smith chart shown in Figure E5-1, what is the name for the large outer circle bounding the coordinate portion of the chart? A. Prime axis B. Reactance axis C. Impedance axis D. Polar axis E5C07 @E5C07 (D) On the Smith chart shown in Figure E5-1, what is the only straight line shown? A. The reactance axis B. The current axis C. The voltage axis D. The resistance axis E5C08 @E5C08 (C) What is the process of normalizing with regard to a Smith chart? A. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis B. Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis C. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the prime center D. Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis E5C09 @E5C10 (A) What is the third family of circles, which are added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems? A. Standing-wave ratio circles B. Antenna-length circles C. Coaxial-length circles D. Radiation-pattern circles E5C10 @E5D03 (A) In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor at 500 MHz? A. 40 + j31,400 B. 40 - j31,400 C. 31,400 + j40 D. 31,400 - j40 E5C11 @E5D04 (C) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100- picofarad capacitor in parallel with a 4,000-ohm resistor at 500 kHz? A. 2490 ohms, /__51.5_degrees__ B. 4000 ohms, /__38.5_degrees__ C. 2490 ohms, /__-51.5_degrees__ D. 5112 ohms, /__-38.5_degrees__ E5C12 @E5D11 (D) Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor and a 85- picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz? A. Point 1 B. Point 3 C. Point 5 D. Point 8 E5D Phase angle between voltage and current; impedances and phase angles of series and parallel circuits; algebraic operations using complex numbers: rectangular coordinates (real and imaginary parts); polar coordinates (magnitude and angle) E5D01 @A5G01 (A) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 100 ohms? A. 36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the current B. 53.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current C. 36.9 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 53.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current E5D02 @A5G03 (C) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms? A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current B. 14.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 14.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current E5D03 @A5G05 (D) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 25 ohms? A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current D. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current E5D04 @A5G07 (A) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms? A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current E5D05 @A5G09 (D) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms? A. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current B. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current C. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current E5D06 @A5G10 (D) What is the relationship between the current through and the voltage across a capacitor? A. Voltage and current are in phase B. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase C. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees D. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees E5D07 @A5G11 (A) What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor? A. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees B. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees C. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase D. Voltage and current are in phase E5D08 @E5E01 (B) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100- ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor? A. 121 ohms, /__35_degrees__ B. 141 ohms, /__45_degrees__ C. 161 ohms, /__55_degrees__ D. 181 ohms, /__65_degrees__ E5D09 @E5E02 (D) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100- ohm-reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-ohm resistor all connected in series? A. 100 ohms, /__90_degrees__ B. 10 ohms, /__0_degrees__ C. 10 ohms, /__100_degrees__ D. 100 ohms, /__0_degrees__ E5D10 @E5E04 (A) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300- ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm resistor, all connected in series? A. 500 ohms, /__37_degrees__ B. 400 ohms, /__27_degrees__ C. 300 ohms, /__17_degrees__ D. 200 ohms, /__10_degrees__ E5D11 @E5E06 (B) In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 1.0-millihenry inductor in series with a 200-ohm resistor at 30 kHz? A. 200 - j188 B. 200 + j188 C. 188 - j200 D. 188 + j200 E5D12 @E5E07 (C) In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 10-millihenry inductor in series with a 600-ohm resistor at 10 kHz? A. 628 + j600 B. 628 - j600 C. 600 + j628 D. 600 - j628 E5D13 @E5E08 (B) In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.1-microfarad capacitor in series with a 40-ohm resistor at 50 kHz? A. 40 + j32 B. 40 - j32 C. 32 - j40 D. 32 + j40 E5E Skin effect; electrostatic and electromagnetic fields E5E01 @A5D01 (A) What is the result of skin effect? A. As frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface B. As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface C. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance D. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance E5E02 @A5D02 (C) What effect causes most of an RF current to flow along the surface of a conductor? A. Layer effect B. Seeburg effect C. Skin effect D. Resonance effect E5E03 @A5D03 (A) Where does almost all RF current flow in a conductor? A. Along the surface of the conductor B. In the center of the conductor C. In a magnetic field around the conductor D. In a magnetic field in the center of the conductor E5E04 @A5D04 (D) Why does most of an RF current flow within a few thousandths of an inch of its conductor's surface? A. Because a conductor has AC resistance due to self-inductance B. Because the RF resistance of a conductor is much less than the DC resistance C. Because of the heating of the conductor's interior D. Because of skin effect E5E05 @A5D05 (C) Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than for direct currents? A. Because the insulation conducts current at high frequencies B. Because of the Heisenburg Effect C. Because of skin effect D. Because conductors are non-linear devices E5E06 @A5D06 (C) What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field? A. A battery B. A transformer C. A capacitor D. An inductor E5E07 @A5D07 (B) What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field? A. Coulomb B. Joule C. Watt D. Volt E5E08 @A5D08 (B) What is a magnetic field? A. Current through the space around a permanent magnet B. The space around a conductor, through which a magnetic force acts C. The space between the plates of a charged capacitor, through which a magnetic force acts D. The force that drives current through a resistor E5E09 @A5D09 (D) In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow? A. In the same direction as the current B. In a direction opposite to the current C. In all directions; omnidirectional D. In a direction determined by the left-hand rule E5E10 @A5D10 (D) What determines the strength of a magnetic field around a conductor? A. The resistance divided by the current B. The ratio of the current to the resistance C. The diameter of the conductor D. The amount of current E5E11 @A5D11 (B) What is the term for energy that is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field? A. Amperes-joules B. Potential energy C. Joules-coulombs D. Kinetic energy E5F Circuit Q; reactive power; power factor E5F01 @A5F01 (A) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is 14.128 MHz, L is 2.7 microhenrys and R is 18 kilohms? A. 75.1 B. 7.51 C. 71.5 D. 0.013 E5F02 @A5F03 (C) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is 4.468 MHz, L is 47 microhenrys and R is 180 ohms? A. 0.00735 B. 7.35 C. 0.136 D. 13.3 E5F03 @A5F05 (D) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, L is 8.2 microhenrys and R is 1 kilohm? A. 36.8 B. 0.273 C. 0.368 D. 2.73 E5F04 @A5F07 (B) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, L is 12.6 microhenrys and R is 22 kilohms? A. 22.1 B. 39 C. 25.6 D. 0.0256 E5F05 @A5F09 (D) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, L is 42 microhenrys and R is 220 ohms? A. 23 B. 0.00435 C. 4.35 D. 0.23 E5F06 @A5F11 (C) Why is a resistor often included in a parallel resonant circuit? A. To increase the Q and decrease the skin effect B. To decrease the Q and increase the resonant frequency C. To decrease the Q and increase the bandwidth D. To increase the Q and decrease the bandwidth E5F07 @A5H02 (D) What is the term for an out-of-phase, nonproductive power associated with inductors and capacitors? A. Effective power B. True power C. Peak envelope power D. Reactive power E5F08 @A5H03 (B) In a circuit that has both inductors and capacitors, what happens to reactive power? A. It is dissipated as heat in the circuit B. It goes back and forth between magnetic and electric fields, but is not dissipated C. It is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit D. It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields E5F09 @A5H04 (A) In a circuit where the AC voltage and current are out of phase, how can the true power be determined? A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor B. By subtracting the apparent power from the power factor C. By dividing the apparent power by the power factor D. By multiplying the RMS voltage times the RMS current E5F10 @A5H05 (C) What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 1.414 B. 0.866 C. 0.5 D. 1.73 E5F11 @A5H08 (B) How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes? A. 400 watts B. 80 watts C. 2000 watts D. 50 watts E5F12 @A5H11 (A) Why would the power used in a circuit be less than the product of the magnitudes of the AC voltage and current? A. Because there is a phase angle greater than zero between the current and voltage B. Because there are only resistances in the circuit C. Because there are no reactances in the circuit D. Because there is a phase angle equal to zero between the current and voltage E5G Effective radiated power; system gains and losses E5G01 @A5I01 (B) What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 50 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 2-dB duplexer loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 6-dBd antenna gain? A. 199 watts B. 39.7 watts C. 45 watts D. 62.9 watts E5G02 @A5I02 (C) What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 50 watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexer loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 7-dBd antenna gain? A. 79.2 watts B. 315 watts C. 31.5 watts D. 40.5 watts E5G03 @A5I03 (D) What is the effective radiated power of a station with 75 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss and 10-dBd antenna gain? A. 600 watts B. 75 watts C. 150 watts D. 299 watts E5G04 @A5I04 (A) What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 75 watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexer loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 6-dBd antenna gain? A. 37.6 watts B. 237 watts C. 150 watts D. 23.7 watts E5G05 @A5I05 (D) What is the effective radiated power of a station with 100 watts transmitter power output, 1-dB feed line loss and 6-dBd antenna gain? A. 350 watts B. 500 watts C. 20 watts D. 316 watts E5G06 @A5I06 (B) What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 100 watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexer loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain? A. 794 watts B. 126 watts C. 79.4 watts D. 1260 watts E5G07 @A5I07 (C) What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 120 watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexer loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 6-dBd antenna gain? A. 601 watts B. 240 watts C. 60 watts D. 79 watts E5G08 @A5I08 (D) What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer loss and 7-dBd antenna gain? A. 1977 watts B. 78.7 watts C. 420 watts D. 286 watts E5G09 @A5I09 (A) What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain? A. 317 watts B. 2000 watts C. 126 watts D. 300 watts E5G10 @A5I10 (B) What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer loss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBd antenna gain? A. 159 watts B. 252 watts C. 632 watts D. 63.2 watts E5G11 @A5I11 (C) What term describes station output (including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between), when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses? A. Power factor B. Half-power bandwidth C. Effective radiated power D. Apparent power E5H Replacement of voltage source and resistive voltage divider with equivalent voltage source and one resistor (Thevenin's Theorem). E5H01 @A5J01 (B) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current as when V1 is 8 volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 8 kilohms? A. R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts B. R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts C. R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts D. R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts E5H02 @A5J02 (C) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current as when V1 is 8 volts, R1 is 16 kilohms, and R2 is 8 kilohms? A. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts B. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts C. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 2.67 volts D. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts E5H03 @A5J03 (A) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current as when V1 is 8 volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 16 kilohms? A. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts B. R3 = 8 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts C. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts D. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts E5H04 @A5J04 (D) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current as when V1 is 10 volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms? A. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts B. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts C. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts D. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts E5H05 @A5J05 (C) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current as when V1 is 10 volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms? A. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts B. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts C. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts E5H06 @A5J06 (A) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current as when V1 is 10 volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20 kilohms? A. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts B. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts C. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts E5H07 @A5J07 (B) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current as when V1 is 12 volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms? A. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts B. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts C. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts E5H08 @A5J08 (B) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current as when V1 is 12 volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms? A. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts B. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts C. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts D. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts E5H09 @A5J09 (C) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current as when V1 is 12 volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20 kilohms? A. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts B. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts C. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts E5H10 @A5J10 (A) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current as when V1 is 12 volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 20 kilohms? A. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts B. R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts C. R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts D. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts E5H11 @A5J11 (D) What circuit principle describes the replacement of any complex two- terminal network of voltage sources and resistances with a single voltage source and a single resistor? A. Ohm's Law B. Kirchhoff's Law C. Laplace's Theorem D. Thevenin's Theorem E5I Photoconductive principles and effects E5I01 @E5A01 (B) What is photoconductivity? A. The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy B. The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction C. The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy D. The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction E5I02 @E5A02 (A) What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it? A. It increases B. It decreases C. It stays the same D. It becomes temperature dependent E5I03 @E5A03 (D) What happens to the resistance of a photoconductive material when light shines on it? A. It increases B. It becomes temperature dependent C. It stays the same D. It decreases E5I04 @E5A04 (C) What happens to the conductivity of a semiconductor junction when light shines on it? A. It stays the same B. It becomes temperature dependent C. It increases D. It decreases E5I05 @E5A05 (D) What is an optocoupler? A. A resistor and a capacitor B. A frequency modulated helium-neon laser C. An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser D. An LED and a phototransistor E5I06 @E5A06 (A) What is an optoisolator? A. An LED and a phototransistor B. A P-N junction that develops an excess positive charge when exposed to light C. An LED and a capacitor D. An LED and a solar cell E5I07 @E5A07 (B) What is an optical shaft encoder? A. An array of neon or LED indicators whose light transmission path is controlled by a rotating wheel B. An array of optocouplers whose light transmission path is controlled by a rotating wheel C. An array of neon or LED indicators mounted on a rotating wheel in a coded pattern D. An array of optocouplers mounted on a rotating wheel in a coded pattern E5I08 @E5A08 (D) What characteristic of a crystalline solid will photoconductivity change? A. The capacitance B. The inductance C. The specific gravity D. The resistance E5I09 @E5A09 (C) Which material will exhibit the greatest photoconductive effect when visible light shines on it? A. Potassium nitrate B. Lead sulfide C. Cadmium sulfide D. Sodium chloride E5I10 @E5A10 (B) Which material will exhibit the greatest photoconductive effect when infrared light shines on it? A. Potassium nitrate B. Lead sulfide C. Cadmium sulfide D. Sodium chloride E5I11 @E5A11 (A) Which material is affected the most by photoconductivity? A. A crystalline semiconductor B. An ordinary metal C. A heavy metal D. A liquid semiconductor E5I12 @New (B) What characteristic of optoisolators is often used in power supplies? A. They have a low impedance between the light source and the phototransistor B. They have a very high impedance between the light source and the phototransistor C. They have a low impedance between the light source and the LED D. They have a very high impedance between the light source and the LED E5I13 @New (C) What characteristic of optoisolators makes them suitable for use with a triac to form the solid-state equivalent of a mechanical relay for a 120 V AC household circuit? A. Optoisolators provide a low impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit B. Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit C. Optoisolators provide a very high degree of electrical isolation between a control circuit and a power circuit D. Optoisolators eliminate (isolate) the effects of reflected light in the control circuit SUBELEMENT E6 -- CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [5 Exam Questions -- 5 Groups] E6A Semiconductor material: Germanium, Silicon, P-type, N-type; Transistor types: NPN, PNP, junction, unijunction, power; field-effect transistors (FETs): enhancement mode; depletion mode; MOS; CMOS; N-channel; P-channel E6A01 @A6A02 (C) In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material in preference to germanium or silicon? A. In bipolar transistors B. In high-power circuits C. At microwave frequencies D. At very low frequencies E6A02 @A6A05 (A) What type of semiconductor material contains more free electrons than pure germanium or silicon crystals? A. N-type B. P-type C. Bipolar D. Insulated gate E6A03 @A6A07 (D) What type of semiconductor material might be produced by adding some indium atoms to germanium crystals? A. J-type B. MOS-type C. N-type D. P-type E6A04 @A6A09 (C) What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor material? A. Free neutrons B. Free protons C. Holes D. Free electrons E6A05 @A6A12 (C) What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure? A. Insulator impurity B. N-type impurity C. Acceptor impurity D. Donor impurity E6A06 @A6D02 (C) What is the alpha of a bipolar transistor? A. The change of collector current with respect to base current B. The change of base current with respect to collector current C. The change of collector current with respect to emitter current D. The change of collector current with respect to gate current E6A07 @A6D06 (A) In Figure A6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5 E6A08 @A6D07 (D) What term indicates the frequency at which a transistor grounded base current gain has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz? A. Corner frequency B. Alpha rejection frequency C. Beta cutoff frequency D. Alpha cutoff frequency E6A09 @A6D12 (D) In Figure A6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a unijunction transistor? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 E6A10 @A6D13 (C) What are the elements of a unijunction transistor? A. Gate, base 1 and base 2 B. Gate, cathode and anode C. Base 1, base 2 and emitter D. Gate, source and sink E6A11 @E6A01 (D) What is an enhancement-mode FET? A. An FET with a channel that blocks voltage through the gate B. An FET with a channel that allows a current when the gate voltage is zero C. An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate D. An FET without a channel; no current occurs with zero gate voltage E6A12 @E6A02 (A) What is a depletion-mode FET? A. An FET that has a channel with no gate voltage applied; a current flows with zero gate voltage B. An FET that has a channel that blocks current when the gate voltage is zero C. An FET without a channel; no current flows with zero gate voltage D. An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate E6A13 @E6A05 (B) In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET? A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 E6A14 @E6A09 (A) In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 6 E6A15 @E6A10 (D) Why do many MOSFET devices have built-in gate-protective Zener diodes? A. To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage B. To protect the substrate from excessive voltages C. To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating D. To prevent the gate insulation from being punctured by small static charges or excessive voltages E6A16 @E6A11 (C) What do the initials CMOS stand for? A. Common mode oscillating system B. Complementary mica-oxide silicon C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor D. Complementary metal-oxide substrate E6A17 @E6A12 (C) How does the input impedance of a field-effect transistor compare with that of a bipolar transistor? A. They cannot be compared without first knowing the supply voltage B. An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance C. An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance D. The input impedance of FETs and bipolar transistors is the same E6B Diodes: Zener, tunnel, varactor, hot-carrier, junction, point contact, PIN and light emitting; operational amplifiers (inverting amplifiers, noninverting amplifiers, voltage gain, frequency response, FET amplifier circuits, single-stage amplifier applications); phase-locked loops E6B01 @A6B01 (B) What is the principal characteristic of a Zener diode? A. A constant current under conditions of varying voltage B. A constant voltage under conditions of varying current C. A negative resistance region D. An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage E6B02 @A6B03 (C) What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode? A. A high forward resistance B. A very high PIV C. A negative resistance region D. A high forward current rating E6B03 @A6B04 (C) What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation? A. Point contact B. Zener C. Tunnel D. Junction E6B04 @A6B06 (A) What type of semiconductor diode varies its internal capacitance as the voltage applied to its terminals varies? A. Varactor B. Tunnel C. Silicon-controlled rectifier D. Zener E6B05 @A6B07 (D) In Figure A6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a varactor diode? A. 8 B. 6 C. 2 D. 1 E6B06 @A6B08 (D) What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode? A. As balanced mixers in FM generation B. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit C. As a constant voltage reference in a power supply D. As VHF and UHF mixers and detectors E6B07 @A6B09 (B) What limits the maximum forward current in a junction diode? A. Peak inverse voltage B. Junction temperature C. Forward voltage D. Back EMF E6B08 @A6B11 (A) Structurally, what are the two main categories of semiconductor diodes? A. Junction and point contact B. Electrolytic and junction C. Electrolytic and point contact D. Vacuum and point contact E6B09 @A6B12 (C) What is a common use for point contact diodes? A. As a constant current source B. As a constant voltage source C. As an RF detector D. As a high voltage rectifier E6B10 @A6B15 (B) In Figure A6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode? A. 1 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7 E6B11 @E7D01 (A) What is the phase relationship between the input and output signals of an inverting op-amp circuit? A. 180 degrees out of phase B. In phase C. 90 degrees out of phase D. 60 degrees out of phase E6B12 @E7D06 (C) What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-1 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms? A. 0.00021 B. 9400 C. 4700 D. 2350 E6B13 @E7D07 (D) How does the gain of a theoretically ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency? A. It increases linearly with increasing frequency B. It decreases linearly with increasing frequency C. It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency D. It does not vary with frequency E6B14 @E7D09 (A) What essentially determines the output impedance of a FET common-source amplifier? A. The drain resistor B. The input impedance of the FET C. The drain supply voltage D. The gate supply voltage E6B15 @E7D11 (D) What will be the voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-1 if R1 is 1000 ohms and RF is 10,000 ohms and 2.3 volts is applied to the input? A. 2.3 volts B. 23 volts C. -2.3 volts D. -23 volts E6B16 @E6B10 (B) What is the name of a circuit that compares the difference of the output from a voltage-controlled oscillator (VCO) to a frequency standard and produces an error voltage that changes the VCO's frequency? A. A doubly balanced mixer B. A phase-locked loop C. A differential voltage amplifier D. A variable frequency oscillator E6B17 @E6B11 (A) What is the capture range of a phase-locked loop circuit? A. The frequency range over which the circuit can lock B. The voltage range over which the circuit can lock C. The input impedance range over which the circuit can lock D. The range of time it takes the